Our main suggestion within this paper is that the foundation on which Mach’s principle lies (as the notion of inertia) is not “physical” but falls within topological field theory, defined by Witten in 1988 [3]. As an example, we consider Foucault’s pendulum experiment F, which cannot be explained satisfactorily in either classical or relativistic mechanics. We recall that the problem is the angular invariance of the plane of oscillation of the pendulum F. Then, the “topological Mach’s principle” assumes that the interaction between F and “global space-time” E is itself of the topological type – which by its nature explains precisely the invariant and global properties of the system formed by the oscillation plane of the pendulum and the rest of the universe.

where the Topological Mach Principle on p.145 is explained as:

3.3 Topological Mach’s principle. The topological amplitudes associated with the propagation of the topological charge of the singular zero size gravitational instanton corresponding to the Initial Singularity of space-time determines the inertial behavior of local masses.

may be wrong. Could you please be a bit more definite – is whats written there right or wrong?

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